Satan does not exist

The pervasiveness of "the satan"

• Satan does not exist as a distinct person in the Hebrew text of the Bible.
• In Numbers 22:22 satan was good divine agent.
• [שטן = satan] is a Hebrew verb/gerund that means obstruct, obstruction.

1.  [השטן / ha-satan]
   
   Every occurrence of "satan" in the book of Job is ha-satan [השטן]. The definite article in Hebrew is more focused than in English.
• "Ha-yom" [היום] does not mean "the day", but it means "this day". This particular day, today among other days.
• "Ha-melekh" [המלך] the-this king, among other kings.
• Therefore "ha-satan" = this particular impediment/hindrance, among other hindrances.
• If ha-satan is the name of a person, then every time the Bible mentions ha-melekh that would mean all the kings mentioned in the Bible is actually the same person !! ? Or when the Bible says ha-yom, it would actually mean the name of a special day ???
• You can't willy nilly adjust the grammar of the Hebrew to concoct your demonology doctrine.
2. Zechariah 3:1
   The same ha-satan occurs in this verse. Joshua the high priest was a satan/hindrance to the agent of Hashem. And then Hashem reproofs the high priest for becoming a hindrance to the agent of Hashem, asking him "you who chose Jerusalem, don't you realise this is a brand salvaged from the fire.
   
   Then Hashem orders the high priest be rid of his dirty garments. And then the agent testifies to the high priest that Hashem says "that if you walk in my ways ..." Obviously the high priest was not behaving appropriately and got rebuked a few times. Telling him of the corners stone the establishment had rejected, the branch that will come forth.
   
   I mean if you twist and turn the sentence construction to translate in a way to include a Satan, rather than Joshua being the satan/hindrance, it would sound really odd.
• ויראני את־יהושע הכהן הגדול עמד לפני מלאך יי והשטן עמד על־ימינו לשטנו
  And he then-shows me of Joshua the high priest standing before the agent of Hashem and the-this satan/hinderer stood upon his right to hinder him.
• ויאמר יי אל־השטן יגער יהוה בך השטן ויגער יהוה בך הבחר בירושלם הלוא זה אוד מצל מאש
  And then says Hashem to the-this satan/hinderer,
  Hashem reproofs in you the-this satan/hinderer.
  Hashem reproofs in you the chooser of Jerusalem
  Is this not a brand salvage from the fire.
3. Numbers 22, agent of G'd became satan
   In Numbers 22 in Hebrew, when Balaam acquiesced to the bribes and threats of the god-king Balak to accuse the chosen people, you would read that the Hebrew text of the Bible says,
   
   

   and he inflamed the anger of G’d because he went then positions himself agent of the LORD in his way to be satan to him and those riding on the donkey his two boys with him

   ויחר אף אלהים כי הולך הוא ויתיצב מלאך יי בדרך לשטן לו והוא רכב על אתנו ושני נעריו עמו

   Hey believers of the existence of the demon Satan, why then in Numbers 22:22 is a good person?
   
   Did you want to say that there was a good satan who fell? But, doesn't your doctrine also says a demon satan fell before the time of Adam, whereas Numbers is during the time of Moses.
4. Occurrences of [שטן] satan not translated as satan
   There are 5 cases in the Hebrew text of the Bible where [שטן](satan) is not prefixed with the definite article. Four of which, even the Christian translations agree in translating those occurrences to describe humans or situations being hindrance/impediment.
• 1 Kings 5:4 (Jewish enum 5:18) - Solomon writes to Hiram that there is no [שטן satan impediment] against him to build the temple.
• 1 Kings 11:14 - The LORD placed Hadad as [שטן satan impediment] for Solomon and general Yoav to destroy.
• 1 Kings 11:23, 25 - G'd placed Rzon ben Elada as [שטן satan impediment] against Israel.
5. WILLY-NILLY Demonology Doctrine
   
   So the believers of the existence of the demon satan WILLY-NILLY decide when the word "satan" means impediment and when it refers to a superdemon?
• Oh, they use their christian testament to justify?
• But their christian testament is on trial here. There is a circular dependency - you can't use an accused burglar's testimony to testify to his on innocence in a burglary.
6. 1Chron 21 = 2 Samuel 24
   There is no reference to a demon or anyone named "satan" in 1Chron 21. NONE.
   
   One case of the 5 cases of unprefixed-satan which is translated into English as "satan", is 1Chron 21.
   
   But that is a wrong translation, because it should have been translated as "hindrance/obstruction".

• and then stood a hindrance upon Israel and then inducing David to account of Israel.

  ויעמד שטן על ישראל ויסת את דויד למנות את ישראל

7. 2 Samuel mirrors 1Chron .
   
   The exact same story is told in 2 Samuel 24, but why is there no reference to "satan" in 2Samuel 24?
   
   Why is a person "satan" not being referenced in 2 Samuel 24? That is because the concept {hindrance} was reflected equivalenty without needing using the word {satan, hindrance}.
   
   Because 1Chron uses satan/hindrance whereas 2Sam uses anger for the same concept..
   
   

   then increased anger of the LORD to inflame in/at Israel and inducing David in/at them saying go account of Israel and Judah

   ויסף אף יי לחרות בישראל ויסת את דוד בהם לאמר לך מנה את ישראל ואת יהודה

• Census-tax theory:
  the census-tax stood upon Israel a “hindrance/satan/שטן” and then incitement/rebellion broke out towards David’s census-tax of Israel. There is a law in Exodus 30, that when you take a census, you have to collect a tax. That tax became a hindrance/satan to Israel. And that was why Israel became incited/rebellious against David.
• Almighty G'd became satan/hindrance - this is the theory I believe in. Since 1 Chron 21 and 2 Sam 24 are mirrors - and because 1 Chro 21 the inducer is "satan", whereas the inducer in 2 Sam 24 is Almighty Himself.

The word used in these two passages is {מנה = apportion, ration} which idiomatically derives the meanings of {count, account for}.

A rebellion broke out among Israel when David wanted to apportion/account-on Israel.

Then we read a couple verses later, his General Yoav questioned why would David persist to criminalize Israel for resisting - be satisfied with what the LORD had given already.

This is the narrative of the story: biblical Hebrew is a simplistic primeval language. What the passages intend to say is:
"This is how Almighty became angry with Israel/Judah. Almighty became a satan to induce David to take accounting-taxation of Israel, becoming a satan?hindrance to Israel/Judah. And a rebellion ensued. And then David begged Almighty for forgiveness for Israel's rebellion because he had deviated from his task."

Demons and spirits?

You know, Hellenistic Jews that ultimately became Christianity, they imported all sorts of pagan ideologies in their Greek translations, that they could not find in the Hebrew text of the Bible. Like the "spirit of god" as an person.

So grammatically, is "anger of god" also another person. A {רוח / ruaX} of Hashem means His presence or influence breezing by. Otherwise, there would be so many more "persons of god" could be derived and squeezed out of the Hebrew text of the Bible.

What fucking "holy spirit"?

Similarly in 1Sam 16:14.

And the presence/influence of Hashem left Shaul, and a bad presence/influence FROM Hashem came upon him. Hashem inflicted Shaul with psychopathic disease. There are instances where Hashem performs {רע / bad} upon {רע / bad} people. {רוח רע } means bad presence/influence.

I DON'T CARE what those Christian documents say, Christians who have tormented Jews and twisted our texts for 2000 years. You have to read the Hebrew text as-is, uninfluenced by pagan demonology, uninfluenced by the spirit/influence of Hellenistic ideologies.


Baal?

Baal in Hebrew means master. In fact in traditional Jewish homes, a wife addresses her husband as Baal. In fact, in Hosea 2, a verse says that the LORD says

and it will be in that day declares the LORD you will call me my husband (ishi) and not call me any more my master (baali)

והיה ביום ההוא נאם יי תקראי אישי ולא תקראי לי עוד בעלי

Adversary?
"Adversary" is a theological projection from the effects of being an "impediment". Like a linebacker or quarterback being an adverse impediment, is the ultimate adversary faced by the opposing team. He is the "satan". Like a good quality control engineer, who is often referred to as "the satan" and perceived as "adversary" to irresponsible production folks.

What king of god ???
"Kingdom of god" is a wicked pagan concept, says 1Sam 8.

While Yoav the righteous loyal general dissuades David. For all the righteous impediments that Yoav to prevent David from destroying himself, the rascal king David upon his death bed having forgotten his promise to his wife BatSheva, but also in wickedness ordered Solomon murder Yoav. And that began the downfall of the Israeli empire.

That is why in 1Sam 8, Almighty consoles Samuel because Israel wanted a king like other nations, to reject Almighty's system of govt - saying such a govt due to a king would be brutal and would bring the downfall of Israel.

There is no "kingdom of god" in the Hebrew text of the Bible, but there is the system of govt of G'd.

Yithro, father-in-law of Moses, introduced representative democracy which is the system of govt of G'd. The messiah is not a king, but would introduce the world back to Yithro's representative